Which BRCGS Food Safety Issue 9 clause requires the site to maintain documented evidence of supplier approval and monitoring?
A. Clause 2.3  
B. Clause 2.8  
C. Clause 4.1.2  
D. Clause 6.1.5

Which of the following are requirements for validation of control measures?
A. Demonstrating reproducibility of the measure  
B. Conducting verification only once at implementation  
C. Using challenge tests or scientific data  
D. Documenting acceptance criteria

According to BRCGS Food Safety Issue 9, how often must internal audits of the FSMS be conducted at a minimum?
A. Quarterly  
B. Annually  
C. Every two years  
D. Monthly

Which of the following are mandatory elements of a recall plan under both FSSC 22000 V6 and BRCGS Issue 9?
A. Traceability matrix  
B. Media approval form  
C. Communication procedure  
D. Mock‑recall records

According to FSSC 22000 V6, critical control points (CCPs) must be revalidated:
A. Whenever there is a change in equipment or process  
B. Only when a customer complains  
C. Never, once established  D. Only during the annual management review

Which of the following pathogens are spore‑formers that can survive typical cooking temperatures?
A. Clostridium perfringens  
B. Salmonella enterica  
C. Bacillus cereus  
D. Listeria monocytogenes

What is the minimum incubation time and temperature for detecting Staphylococcus aureus in a food sample?
A. 24 h at 37 °C  
B. 48 h at 25 °C  
C. 18 h at 42 °C  
D. 72 h at 30 °C

Select all that apply for Listeria monocytogenes:
A. Psychrotrophic (grows at refrigeration temperatures)  
B. Strictly aerobic  
C. Non‑spore‑forming  
D. Commonly controlled by high acidification

Which additive is commonly used to inhibit mould and some bacterial growth in cheese?
A. Sodium nitrite  
B. Potassium sorbate  
C. Monosodium glutamate  
D. Calcium propionate

Which control measures are effective against anaerobic, spore‑forming Clostridium perfringens in meat products?
A. Rapid cooling through the danger zone (5–60 °C)  
B. High‑pressure processing (HPP)  
C. Extended room‑temperature storage  
D. Addition of nitrites

Which food additive must be declared on the label if present at > 10 mg kg⁻¹ because of allergic reactions?
A. Sodium benzoate  
B. Carmine (E120)  
C. Monosodium glutamate  
D. Sulphites

According to GSO 9:2016 (General Standard for the Labelling of Pre‑packaged Foods), what minimum font height is required for the ingredient list on a small package (< 80 cm²)?
A. 1.2 mm  
B. 0.9 mm  
C. 0.5 mm  
D. 0.3 mm

Which of the following shelf‑life studies complies with SFDA guidelines for determining expiry date?
A. Accelerated study at 45 °C for 15 days  
B. Real‑time testing at storage temperature for 12 months  
C. pH and water‑activity measurement only  
D. Challenge test with inoculated pathogens

Under GSO 249:2018 (Microbiological Criteria for Foodstuffs), the maximum allowable total‑coliform count in pasteurised milk is:
A. 10 CFU mL⁻¹  
B. 100 CFU mL⁻¹  
C. 10² CFU mL⁻¹  
D. 10³ CFU mL⁻¹

Match each SFDA‑listed preservative with its maximum permitted level in bakery products (mg kg⁻¹):

Which design features help prevent microbial harborage in a food‑processing filling line?
A. Minimising dead‑leg piping  
B. Welded 45° pipe joints  
C. Open‑mesh conveyor belts  
D. Sloped surfaces ≥ 3° for wash‑down

In sanitation engineering, what is the primary function of a CIP spray ball’s flow rate and coverage?
A. To cool equipment rapidly  
B. To provide mechanical force to dislodge soils  
C. To measure detergent concentration  
D. To sterilise via steam injection

Which cleaning‑validation parameter best indicates removal of biofilm from stainless‑steel surfaces?
A. Visual inspection under bright light  
B. ATP bioluminescence readings  
C. pH of final rinse water  
D. Temperature of cleaning solution

Which factor is most critical when selecting a sanitizer for equipment with high‑protein soils?
A. Low foaming  
B. Broad UV‑light activation  
C. High alkaline strength  
D. Water‑hardness compatibility

A comprehensive HACCP verification programme includes:
A. Internal audits of PRPs and CCPs  
B. Visual‑only checks of equipment cleanliness  
C. Trend analysis of critical‑limit deviations  
D. Re‑assessment after process or recipe changes